[music-dsp] why 3/4 in quantization?
joshscholar at yahoo.com
Mon Jan 19 09:22:01 EST 2004
It just occured to me that when I read about bands being quantized in AAC
it's just the same thing as A-Law and Mu-Law but in subbands...
Maybe you were talking about those instead... Same problem, though I imagine
that instanious quantization is a much worse choice for a codec that doesn't
use subbands since the lag it avoids would be shorter anyway and the noise
(being wideband) is much more noticable.
----- Original Message -----
From: "sri G" <ilikenature at sify.com>
To: <music-dsp at shoko.calarts.edu>
Sent: Monday, January 19, 2004 2:44 AM
Subject: [music-dsp] why 3/4 in quantization?
> hi all,
> Can anyone plz tell why 0.75 is used as a power in quantizing audio? why
not anyother fraction?
> what is the significance of this fraction?
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